@CatGoddess
yeah, to begin with, there's absolutely no point in comparing US to Sweden in this case, because the immigration policies are worlds apart, and the origins of the immigrants are different. US immigrants are predominately from Mexico, China and India. Sweden, on the other hand, has had a high influx of immigrants from Africa and the Middle East. The culture of the immigrants' origin is all that matters in this context.
secondly, when you're talking about correlation =/= causation, you have to assess what sort of analysis can and cannot allow for inference of causal relationships. If, for example, rape correlates with immigration, and you reject the claim that rape is caused by immigration, you would have to argue that there is a 3rd variable that causes both rape and immigration (see "
confounding variable"). Is it that native swedes become more likely to rape someone when they sense that the population has a higher density of immigrants? Sounds dubious. I cannot come up with any reasonable 3rd variable that could cause both an increase in sexual crime and immigration.
thirdly, despite there being considerable censorship in sweden when it comes to reporting the nationality and ethnicity of criminals, there is ample evidence that immigrants are involved in violent sexual crime at vastly higher rates than native Swedes. For example, from wikipedia:
In March 2018, newspaper
Expressen investigated
gang rape court cases from the two preceding years and found that there were 43 men having been convicted. [...] Of the convicted, 40 out of the 43 were either immigrants (born abroad) or born in Sweden to immigrant parents.
[153] Another investigation by newspaper Aftonbladet found that of 112 men and boys convicted for gang rape since July 2012, 82 were born outside Europe. The median age of the victims was 15, while 7 out of 10 perpetrators were between 15 to 20.
[154] According to professor Christian Diesen, a foreigner may have a lower threshold to commit sexual assault due to having grown up in a misogynist culture where all women outside the home are interpreted as available.
but even if you hadn't seen all this evidence, how would you explain such a sudden change in crime statistics across the board? A sudden moral decay in the Swedish population, which just happened to start in 2015? The natural explanation for such an abrupt change would rather be that the
composition of the population has changed.