Enola.Grey
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- Dec 22, 2009
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I though I would mix this one up. Think you can answer. I have an idea, but let us open this up for debate?
I though I would mix this one up. Think you can answer. I have an idea, but let us open this up for debate?
You know how PCs can use DosBox to emulate Dos programs? Yeah... kinda like thatnow, to make you divide by zero:
could an all powerful being create a situation in which he isnt all powerful?
My point of view as a maths student:
Well, first of all assume that said conversation was non-empty (i.e. at least one of them had something to say, and they both knew what would be said). But this conversation would be pointless as they both know what is going to be said, and will therefore choose not to say anything. Hence, the conversation would therefore be empty.
This is a contradiction to initial assumption, so from 'proof by contradition' we can conclude that neither psychic says anything in this "conversation" (neither in their psychic vision or in their actual meeting), so neither speaks first.
well, would they not have seen that there was no conversation? the OP said they knew the meeting would take place, and what the conversation would entail, but if there was none, then it would be as they saw it, the conversation would exist, just at a value of zero.
OR
they both see the conversation, but at the point where it changes within reality(say nobody talks but before they saw that they did), their memories of the premonition change to match. That way, at the present, everything would coincide, and in the past everything would coincide, and the future is something else entirely.
If you can see something is going to happen in the future you have the ability to change it. So psychics (which dont actually exist) would be seeing the outcome of events if they do not interfere.
If they both already foresaw the conversation, then they should have also foreseen who would be the first to speak, right?
And I suppose if we assume this is a legit prophecy, and legit psychics, then neither of them could avoid it from happening even if they wanted to, and would know this - so they would both comply to carry it out even though they know the outcome already.
They foresaw the conversation. That does not mean they already had it. If they don't have it, then it was not foreseen, merely mutually imagined.Why, if they both know what they will say, should they re-enact it? So I say neither. They already had the conversation psychically. Why should either bother showing up?
I though I would mix this one up. Think you can answer. I have an idea, but let us open this up for debate?