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(Left eye >= or <= Right eye)

Ex-User (15237)

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Does anyone know why there are difference between the two eyes some person.
mostly it happens that the older a person is the more distinguishable the eyes are as being one greater the the other.
awd.PNG
 

Kid_KeK

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Left brain - right brain + maturity/deteriorating?
 

Rebis

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Rephrasing that: (E(L) >= E(R) or E(R) > E(L) )

The visual cortex percieves occular information from one side and inverts it to the opposite hemisphere:

Perception isn't simultaneous, the left and right eye percieve different angles of the same object. Before processing our eyes are technically seeing in 3D since there are two images at seperate co-ordinates, but our brain creates a monocular image that we think of.

There is also the concept of occular dominance where one eye is preferential in terms of visual synchronicity.
 

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Kid_KeK

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Left brain - right brain + maturity/deteriorating?
Left brain - right brain + maturity( Development????? )/deteriorating

Possibly a development. I'd imagine there could be a correlation to which side of the brain is used more. The eye is a muscle, after all. hemifields from what I understand work in cohesive response when it comes to eyes received information, but not exploration.
 

Rebis

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Eye-dominance has nothing to do with sociological properties like success.

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Rebis

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Eye-dominance has nothing to do with sociological properties like success.

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okay,
are there any pros and cons of having Eye-dominance

Any variance or differential infers a positive/negative attribute. So while I cannot say one for sure there certainly is. My guess is tracking trajectories of an object in motion relative to it's position, so one eye tracks the position better and another could track the vector at which the object is moving, predicting it's projected position.
 

Ex-User (15237)

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could this occur as a result of use of mental workspace with priority to a process which uses a part of Occipital Cortex
 

Rebis

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No because the occipital cortex processes visual information, it has no function as a "mental workspace", that is the process of conscious dilligence.

By the way, I think you should work on your communication skills. Your language is too self-referential. I have no problems with procesing conceptual information but use of language to convey a concept of which you understand is entirely different to my own. I had to learn too, it's important we realise that others do not interface with the world in regards to the same mental models. Below was a confusing message in terms of logical linearity.
For example, my interpetation of the phrase:
could this occur as a result of use of mental workspace with priority to a process which uses a part of Occipital Cortex


Since the subject matter is eye dominance, with precedes occular processing, then mental workspace cannot prioritise information pertaining to the occipital cortext prior to processing. If you thought the occipital cortex stores memories of the visuo-spatial kind, which would infer different domains of the occipital cortex could be used i.e. your brain is retrieving an image from a particular synaptic junction in the occipital cortex, which could be a preferential region of the left eye to process visual information then that would create a disparity creating a temporal occular dominance then that would make sense, though this is not the case.
 

Ex-User (15237)

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one last question
Do you think that this could be a adaption due to manipulating others.
as a person usually mimics, changes facial features in order to make the other one feel or see something what they want ( emotions )
 

Rebis

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It's an unconscious adaptation, every hemisphere of the brain doesn't necessarily relate to an emergent monologue we call consciousness. There is symbolic interactionalism which consists of non-verbal cues (Winking, eyebrow raising, fixating eyes, so on so forth) which obviously pertain to manipulation of the eye but that'd be up to the predeliction of the person. Though, these behaviours would correlate highly with occular dominance.

People do manipulate their facial features for mimicry, something explicitly or implicitly (a feigning smile via social conditioning, a pavlovic response). However, this is first and foremost a biological response that's regulation does not impose an upmost importance on social-exchange, so again the sociological reasons are low. I believe occular dominance is predicated on biological mechanisms, perhaps you have 22/18 vision (oppose to 20/20) so one eye can see further and the other is better at extracting detail towards objects moving towards them. Long-sightedness is bad if the object gets close, and short-sightedness is hard to determine where an object is until it's in close proximity. Diabetes could cause occular ruptures, one eye could be damaged through any possible injury, one could lean in a certain way (their head resting on the ir right hand, to which they're leaning right), which would give a preference to the left eye as it has greater peripheral vision due to the nose blocking their eye's angular sight upwards.
 

Rebis

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A photo of myself displaying eye dominance haha
f91b7de950d33a337a69714558a75b86.jpg


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Hadoblado

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It's unlikely to be a hemisphere thing.

Eye dominance is both motor and sensory. While the motor system for each eye is organised contralaterally (as is the vast majority of motor control), the optical sensory information is organised by visual field.
1582536477628.png
So the right hemisphere computes the information from the left visual field for both eyes. Meaning if it's a hemispheric dominance thing, then it's only pertaining to motor function, not sensory/perceptual processes.

As a rule of thumb, if you're asking whether it's a hemispheric thing, if you're not talking about language then interhemispheric differences are probably minor. Popular media wildly exaggerates these differences compared to what is actually supported by the literature.
 

Hadoblado

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@Rebis
What do you mean by perception isn't simultaneous? What do you mean by visual synchronicity?

@Kid_KeK
You use all of your brain. Unused brain areas are immediately repurposed (neuroplasticity). For example,a person who loses their eyes might have parts of their occipital lobe repurposed towards language or echolocation. This has been observed to occur very rapidly, sometimes within minutes of amputation the somatosensory system will have remapped now unused hand cortex to the face. This is because the somatosensory homunculus places face cortex next to hand cortext. The greedy neighbor swoops in and steals the processing resources as soon as they are unused.

1582538798523.png

So when I lovingly caress the amputee's forehead, they might experience the sensation in their 'arm' despite not having one.


@xersevx
It is unlikely that there is any value in eye dominance or asymmetrical eyes. The only exception I can think of is heterochromia iridum which looks otherworldly.
View attachment 5170

I think Rebis is right about 'mental workspace'. Your visuospatial sketchpad and other mental manipulation abilities are cognitive and post-perceptual. Perceptual processes occur later than sensory. There is a structural distance between the sensory hardware of the eyes, through the visual pathway, feature detection, gestalt processes, contextual top-down perception, all the way to cognition and abstraction.
 

Rebis

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@Rebis
What do you mean by perception isn't simultaneous? What do you mean by visual synchronicity?

@Kid_KeK
You use all of your brain. Unused brain areas are immediately repurposed (neuroplasticity). For example,a person who loses their eyes might have parts of their occipital lobe repurposed towards language or echolocation. This has been observed to occur very rapidly, sometimes within minutes of amputation the somatosensory system will have remapped now unused hand cortex to the face. This is because the somatosensory homunculus places face cortex next to hand cortext. The greedy neighbor swoops in and steals the processing resources as soon as they are unused.


So when I lovingly caress the amputee's forehead, they might experience the sensation in their 'arm' despite not having one.


@xersevx
It is unlikely that there is any value in eye dominance or asymmetrical eyes. The only exception I can think of is heterochromia iridum which looks otherworldly.
View attachment 5170

I think Rebis is right about 'mental workspace'. Your visuospatial sketchpad and other mental manipulation abilities are cognitive and post-perceptual. Perceptual processes occur later than sensory. There is a structural distance between the sensory hardware of the eyes, through the visual pathway, feature detection, gestalt processes, contextual top-down perception, all the way to cognition and abstraction.
Simultaneous as in each eye doesn't the same speed at processing sight leading to a possibility of occular dominance as one image processes moving objects faster.

Visual synchronicity as in layering of the two independent angles percieved by both eyes which are then made into one perceptible image.

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Rebis

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It's if you're using mobile, you can't get rid of it

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scorpiomover

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