birdsnestfern
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So if god is all knowing and all powerful, he's an asshole, because he created flawed people doomed to sin and then punishes them for being how he made them.The question, for Compatibilists at least, isn't whether we can do otherwise, but rather that, nothing prevented what you did. You have Free Will insofar as you are acting in accord with your nature and nothing prevents you from doing what you do.
So if god is all knowing and all powerful, he's an asshole, because he created flawed people doomed to sin and then punishes them for being how he made them.
Honestly the "god is an asshole" theory explains so much.
Alternatively god isn't all powerful or all knowing, but then is that really a god or just a powerful entity?
Free will is incompatible with causality and if the universe isn't causal making decisions of moral significance is impossible.
How?The Compatibilists would disagree.Free will is incompatible with causality and if the universe isn't causal making decisions of moral significance is impossible.
How?The Compatibilists would disagree.Free will is incompatible with causality and if the universe isn't causal making decisions of moral significance is impossible.
With causality event are deterministic.
Without causality the outcome of an action cannot be determined.
There's no such thing as semi-causality.
Introducing some kind of psychic time travel doesn't change anything because in order for actions to have any moral relevance the outcome of those actions have to be sufficiently determinable, and they only way they can be determinable at all is if you're operating within some kind of causality, and if there's causality then those determinable events are therefore deterministic.
If Compatibilists disagree it's because they're Sophists.
Of course they're different, hence why we have the phrase "free will" and the word "freedom", if I'm tied up and gagged that's not an imposition upon my free will but rather an imposition upon my ability to enact my will.Do you delineate free will from freedom? If not, is the concept of slavery meaningful?
I haven't been able to load the video.You are pretty much doing the exact same thing Cosmic Skeptic is doing by only accounting for incompatible definitions. As I already explained, Compatibilists believe the way we have free will is that nothing prevents them from doing something. It was alluded to in the video, but never really addressed. The difference is in choosing to jump vs being pushed. In hard determinism, no matter what you do, you are always pushed. Therefore, it makes your wants things you HAVE to do.
I haven't been able to load the video.
Determinism isn't being forced to do something it's the fact that whatever choice you make, for whatever reason you make it, was the choice you were always going to make, that due to causality the future is as immutable as the past.
To a materialist such as myself this is both blindingly obvious and utterly irrelevant, of course if you repeat the exact same scenario with the exact same parameters you're going to get the exact same outcome, why wouldn't you? But we can't go back in time nor see the future so it doesn't matter if reality is causal and deterministic, it only matters if you believe there's an omnipotent god that will punish you for immoral behavior.
Because that doesn't make sense, why would an all-knowing all-powerful god that created us with absolute knowledge of what it was doing and what it was creating and what that creation would do then punish that creation for doing exactly what it was created to do?
It's like an insane clock maker smashing his clocks for telling the time when that's exactly what he created them to do, except crueler because those clocks are thinking feeling people who never asked to be born.
Do you know what a non sequitur is?It is not that God is just waiting to smash you. It's that I'm forgiven which leads me to love my neighbor.
I understand that your position is illogical and you're willfully ignorant of what determinism is.
It is not that God is just waiting to smash you. It's that I'm forgiven which leads me to love my neighbor.
Do you know what a non sequitur is?
The fact is you don't have an answer to this:
At least not a rational one, but apparently that won't stop you from incoherently babbling at me anyway.
- Is God willing to prevent evil, but not able? Then he is not omnipotent.
- Is he able, but not willing? Then he is malevolent.
- Is he both able and willing? Then from whence comes evil? Free will.
- Free will is incompatible with causality and if the universe isn't causal making decisions of moral significance is impossible.
- If free will is not possible then either God is malevolent or impotent.
Old things, Cog acknowledges a difference between free will and freedom.
You also have made this distinction between deterministic free will ("the ability to do otherwise") and freedom (free to act in accordance with your nature).
If you both recognise the distinction, what do you think is the factor determining your difference in conclusion?
Okay so the whole issue is that you're using different words?
Why would you sneer over just using different words? That's dumb.
I apologize, but this video really is only covering a very small portion of the debate and for that, I don't really have much respect for the view given in it.
That's nonsensical.You also have made this distinction between deterministic free will ("the ability to do otherwise") and freedom (free to act in accordance with your nature).
Oh I see that's what you mean by "the ability to do otherwise", it's still wrong.Compatibilists, on the other hand, claim that these concerns miss the mark. Some compatibilists hold this because they think the truth of causal determinism would not undermine our freedom to do otherwise (Berofsky 1987, Campbell 1997, Vihvelin 2013, etc.). As a result, these compatibilists tell us, the truth of causal determinism poses no threat to our status as morally responsible agents (notice the enthymematic premise here: the freedom to do otherwise is sufficient for the kind of control an agent must possess to be morally responsible for her actions).
Again due to causality the future is as immutable as the past,
You still don't understand what hard determinism is.
Riddle me this, can someone be morally accountable for their actions in a universe without causality? And if so, how?
Actions are preceded by intentions and intentions are preceded by motivations.Agent Causation said:Most events can be explained as the effects of prior events. When a tree falls, it does so because of the force of the wind, its own structural weakness, and so on. However, when a person performs a free act, agent causation theorists say that the action was not caused by any other events or states of affairs, but rather was caused by the agent. Agent causation is ontologically separate from event causation. The action was not uncaused, because the agent caused it. But the agent's causing it was not determined by the agent's character, desires, or past, since that would just be event causation.[25] As Chisholm explains it, humans have "a prerogative which some would attribute only to God: each of us, when we act, is a prime mover unmoved. In doing what we do, we cause certain events to happen, and nothing – or no one – causes us to cause those events to happen."[26]
Ah yes the quantum woo theories.Agent Causation said:Event-causal accounts of incompatibilist free will typically rely upon physicalist models of mind (like those of the compatibilist), yet they presuppose physical indeterminism, in which certain indeterministic events are said to be caused by the agent. A number of event-causal accounts of free will have been created, referenced here as deliberative indeterminism, centred accounts, and efforts of will theory.[30] The first two accounts do not require free will to be a fundamental constituent of the universe. Ordinary randomness is appealed to as supplying the "elbow room" that libertarians believe necessary. A first common objection to event-causal accounts is that the indeterminism could be destructive and could therefore diminish control by the agent rather than provide it (related to the problem of origination). A second common objection to these models is that it is questionable whether such indeterminism could add any value to deliberation over that which is already present in a deterministic world.
Deliberative indeterminism asserts that the indeterminism is confined to an earlier stage in the decision process.[31][32] This is intended to provide an indeterminate set of possibilities to choose from, while not risking the introduction of luck (random decision making). The selection process is deterministic, although it may be based on earlier preferences established by the same process. Deliberative indeterminism has been referenced by Daniel Dennett[33] and John Martin Fischer.[34] An obvious objection to such a view is that an agent cannot be assigned ownership over their decisions (or preferences used to make those decisions) to any greater degree than that of a compatibilist model.
Centred accounts propose that for any given decision between two possibilities, the strength of reason will be considered for each option, yet there is still a probability the weaker candidate will be chosen.[35][36][37][38][39][40][41] An obvious objection to such a view is that decisions are explicitly left up to chance, and origination or responsibility cannot be assigned for any given decision.
Efforts of will theory is related to the role of will power in decision making. It suggests that the indeterminacy of agent volition processes could map to the indeterminacy of certain physical events – and the outcomes of these events could therefore be considered caused by the agent. Models of volition have been constructed in which it is seen as a particular kind of complex, high-level process with an element of physical indeterminism. An example of this approach is that of Robert Kane, where he hypothesizes that "in each case, the indeterminism is functioning as a hindrance or obstacle to her realizing one of her purposes – a hindrance or obstacle in the form of resistance within her will which must be overcome by effort."[9] According to Robert Kane such "ultimate responsibility" is a required condition for free will.[42] An important factor in such a theory is that the agent cannot be reduced to physical neuronal events, but rather mental processes are said to provide an equally valid account of the determination of outcome as their physical processes (see non-reductive physicalism).
"If you choose vanilla over chocolate, you have to want vanilla more than chocolate" requires that choice of vanilla over chocolate is pre-determined by some other factor, like that you want vanilla more than chocolate => this statement is only true if you assume that there is no free will when it comes to choosing vanilla over chocolate => assuming the consequent (fallacy).
"Always"? How many people in the world have a favourite food, and have eaten nothing but their favourite food for their entire lives?If you prefer vanilla to chocolate you will always choose vanilla over chocolate.
Rephrasing = "saying the exact same thing in a different way".If you choose vanilla over chocolate, you must have wanted vanilla more than chocolate.
You must want vanilla more than chocolate, if you choose vanilla over chocolate.
That's not affirming the consequent, that's just rephrasing the same statement.
Yes, it's a fallacy, that was my point."Always"? How many people in the world have a favourite food, and have eaten nothing but their favourite food for their entire lives?If you prefer vanilla to chocolate you will always choose vanilla over chocolate.
Yes that is the definition of rephrasing.Rephrasing = "saying the exact same thing in a different way".If you choose vanilla over chocolate, you must have wanted vanilla more than chocolate.
You must want vanilla more than chocolate, if you choose vanilla over chocolate.
That's not affirming the consequent, that's just rephrasing the same statement.
So if you're rephasing "there is no free will", then you're saying "there is no free will => there is no free will."
Says the man trapped in denial, I've already explained to you why free will is axiomatically impossible, how it is invalidated by its own prerequisites, and your response to this been a series of fallacies.Now, to note here is that we all have presuppositions or Schema that also shape how we see the world. It is when we come across "New" information that conflicts with our prior held Schema that we have to choose what to do with that "New" information. So things like what you eat for breakfast are out of our control, but we can choose the Schema we live by when "New" information presents itself. In this way, we can either choose what is True, what is False, or what we want to be True from this "New" information. And it is only when we choose what is True - usually at some cost to us - that we exercise our Free Will.
Says the man trapped in denial, I've already explained to you why free will is axiomatically impossible, how it is invalidated by its own prerequisites, and your response to this been a series of fallacies.
You are trapped in denial, you're so heavily invested in your delusion you're incapable of accepting any truths that contradicts it regardless of how irrefutable they may be.
I'm pretty sure I know who I'm talking to, why did you come back?
Indeed from a hard determinism perspective there is no evil, only tragedy, but as we are not gods we cannot fix the abused childhood of a serial killer or the neurological disorders of the criminally insane, we can only do the best we can with the methods available and hope that someday we will be able to do better.I'm kinda curious how you account for responsibility for people. Why should people go to jail for doing something wrong?
Indeed from a hard determinism perspective there is no evil, only tragedy, but as we are not gods we cannot fix the abused childhood of a serial killer or the neurological disorders of the criminally insane, we can only do the best we can with the methods available and hope that someday we will be able to do better.I'm kinda curious how you account for responsibility for people. Why should people go to jail for doing something wrong?
We put people in jail to protect society from them, to protect them from society and to protect them from themselves, and if we try really hard we can reform some of them or at least redirect them down a better path.
Your point was that people who prefer vanilla to chocolate, sometimes choose vanilla over chocolate, and sometimes choose chocolate over vanilla? That choices are not pre-determined?Yes, it's a fallacy, that was my point."Always"? How many people in the world have a favourite food, and have eaten nothing but their favourite food for their entire lives?If you prefer vanilla to chocolate you will always choose vanilla over chocolate.
It's circular reasoning, "A => A".Yes that is the definition of rephrasing.Rephrasing = "saying the exact same thing in a different way".If you choose vanilla over chocolate, you must have wanted vanilla more than chocolate.
You must want vanilla more than chocolate, if you choose vanilla over chocolate.
That's not affirming the consequent, that's just rephrasing the same statement.
So if you're rephasing "there is no free will", then you're saying "there is no free will => there is no free will."
What is your point?
Then either:Free will is incompatible with causality and if the universe isn't causal making decisions of moral significance is impossible.
This in turn implis that all forms of pre-determination requires a finite chain of temporal regress.
This in turn implies that there must be an earlier point that lacks pre-determination, i.e. is not pre-determined.
To have evidence indicating causality, one must show that in a given situation where A can happen and A can not happen, whenever A happens, B happens, and whenever A does not happen, B does not happen. If A and B are pre-determined by C, then A and B happened because of C. Thus, there is no proof that A =>B and no proof of causality between a and B. Thus, no free will => no evidence indicating any case of causality => no causality.Free will is incompatible with causality and if the universe isn't causal making decisions of moral significance is impossible.
So free will is incompatible with causality =>there is no proof of any form of causality.
Ok I think I understand that, except proving a negative is impossible so we can never prove causality (or anything at all for that matter) in the absolute sense, just as there could theoretically be a unicorn standing behind me right now (despite a myriad of reasons why that's astronomically unlikely) hence why absolute proof is never really required to prove something, you only need to prove it beyond all reasonable doubt.To have evidence indicating causality, one must show that in a given situation where A can happen and A can not happen, whenever A happens, B happens, and whenever A does not happen, B does not happen.
You're use of "=>" is giving me syntax errors, I cannot compute this "logic"?If A and B are pre-determined by C, then A and B happened because of C. Thus, there is no proof that A =>B and no proof of causality between a and B. Thus, no free will => no evidence indicating any case of causality => no causality.
So free will is incompatible with causality =>there is no proof of any form of causality.
We HAVE reasonable evidence for indeterminism, from the double-slit experiment.Ok I think I understand that, except proving a negative is impossible so we can never prove causality (or anything at all for that matter) in the absolute sense, just as there could theoretically be a unicorn standing behind me right now (despite a myriad of reasons why that's astronomically unlikely) hence why absolute proof is never really required to prove something, you only need to prove it beyond all reasonable doubt.To have evidence indicating causality, one must show that in a given situation where A can happen and A can not happen, whenever A happens, B happens, and whenever A does not happen, B does not happen.
I would say that someone who grew up with zero tech in the jungle, would have a better understanding of the level of naturally-occuring causality in the world.However that is not to say that absolute proof doesn't exist, you can have axiomatic proof where the proof is a direct consequence of the question, e.g. 1 + 1 = 2, the only way the answer could not be true would be if you changed or redefined some part of the equation at which point it's not the answer that has changer but rather the question.
I cannot prove that all events are causal, for all I know it could just be an incredible coincidence that all events thus far have occurred in an apparently causal manner and that the universe isn't actually causal at all, but this is hardly a reasonable doubt to have.
Now you're moving the goalposts. You're defining "free will" as "accountable by G-d". You can have the freedom to choose to eat strawberry jam or apricot jam, and still be just as unaccountable.I can however axiomatically prove that free will doesn't exist because free will is the ability to perform an action that can be judged by god,
Well, not really. If there's 0% causality, then there's no reason to suppose moral consequences, and no reason to hold back. If there's 100% causality, that's like being shot in the head. Anyone who ignores that level of causality is seriously mentally/physically ill.but the ability to perform actions of moral consequence necessitates a causal relationship between action and consequence. So causality is a prerequisite of free will but the existence of causality also invalidates free will (for the reasons stated in my prior post) UNLESS you're willing to concede that god is not omnipotent.
Here:You're use of "=>" is giving me syntax errors, I cannot compute this "logic"?If A and B are pre-determined by C, then A and B happened because of C. Thus, there is no proof that A =>B and no proof of causality between a and B. Thus, no free will => no evidence indicating any case of causality => no causality.
So free will is incompatible with causality =>there is no proof of any form of causality.
If A and B are pre-determined by C, then A and B happened because of C. Thus, there is no proof that A causes B and no proof of causality between A and B. Thus, no free will means that there is no evidence indicating any case of causality, which means there is no reason to think any form of causality exists.
So "free will is incompatible with causality" implies that there is no proof of any form of causality.