Well the peers in the house of commons seemed to think there was a historical agenda, I'm sure they have good reason to make such a claim, I'm sure neither of us can be bothered to check the historical context.
To further expand, it's only been in recent modern history that women have been granted 'equal' status as men.
Which, arguably, is a step down from their historical position of privilege. People go on about things like suffrage, ignoring the fact that it was a privilege of citizenship afforded to those who could be conscripted to go to war.
You'll also often hear "women were property". Well, yes, they were their husband's property, in a semantic sense, not a practical one. The status of being "owned" meant that they were not obligated to do anything. Their husbands were required to provide for them and could often be held legally responsible for the actions of his wife. They could go down to the store and say "just bill my husband" for whatever they wanted. If her husband didn't want his wife doing this he'd have to go to each store one by one and tell them not to sell things to his wife.
Being "owned" didn't mean you weren't free. Women could work, if they wanted. The reason they got paid less is because they did different jobs than men. If they worked at a coal mine, they weren't actually
in the mine, swinging the pickaxe and getting the coal out of the earth. They'd be outside loading it onto a truck or something similarly less labor intensive and/or dangerous.
Going forward, we'll even see people complain that today school staff who serve food get paid less than the custodians and they'll say it's because sexism, when in reality it's because they're two different jobs. If you want to clean up shit and vomit, there's nothing stopping you from working as a custodian other than, perhaps, your preference to do a less demanding job.
This is, of course, a general view of western history. There have been times of legitimate sexist oppression, but they were the historical exception, not the rule. There's little to no remaining legacies from these times.
There's a litany of other examples, but it would really require a lot of time and effort to fully flesh out just how wrong the notion that women, in the west, have somehow been subordinate to men throughout all, or even most of western history. To do so would require quite a lot of historical context and citations that I just don't have the time or patience to go into. I'll gladly address specific historical points, but sweeping generalizations about how history was are very time consuming to address.
Heck in was only in 2013 I could legally, as a woman, play on the snooker table in the UK, (in many public instiutions).
So my point is, there is plenty of residual bias left over from the middle age patriarchy, to state otherwise is just silly. (Same can be said for all civil liberty movements).
I don't know much about UK sports, but I'm assuming, like most sports, it's segregated by sex so that it's fair. I'd be very surprised to learn if there was a law prohibiting women from playing the game at all or having their own tables.
I couldn't find any information on the change in 2013 or what the problem was before then, so it's hard to address with any specificity, being unaware of what the state was before and after 2013. I'd be interested in the specifics if you could provide them.
There are, seemingly, similar situations in the US where there haven't been (American) football teams for women at schools. When they finally got pressured into creating them, no one joined. No women actually wanted to play, they just wanted the opportunity to play. Making it worse there's also been instances where this has happened and there was mandated parity in participation for male teams and female teams, meaning that if women didn't play, men couldn't either.
The gender pay gap remains an elephant in the room.
This is addressed in my first post with sexual dimorphic preferences. Essentially all of the wage gap can be directly accounted for by differences in preferences between the sexes, and the little that isn't is due to the lack of methodology to account for the difference. There's no more evidence attributing the actual disparity to sexism than there is to attributing the rest to preference.
http://www.consad.com/content/reports/Gender Wage Gap Final Report.pdf
Furthermore, equal pay has been written into law (in both the UK and US) for quite some time. So if there is a difference in pay for the actual same work, it's not legal.
Even further, it would seem that if employers
could get away with paying women less, why wouldn't they hire women exclusively? That would be financially amazing. I doubt sexism trumps greed, though I'm unaware of any studies that have tested it.
P.s 'what was left unaddressed?'.. you addressed everything, but insufficiently, but I'm not that interested, so we'll move on.
If you'd like citations for any assertion I made I'd be happy to provide them. If evidence contradicting the claims of "patriarchy" isn't enough, then I guess you've answered my question. No, in fact, "patriarchy" is not falsifiable.
I'm in the same boat as Yellow. I've actually never heard anyone (aside yourself, Munk) mention the patriarchy in any way other than making a joke.
I think a lot of this is due to people holding the opinion that we live in a systemically patriarchal society, but not ever talking about it. Belief in a "patriarchy", in my experience, doesn't seem to be a rare view when it's actually brought up.